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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 23.06.2025 03:12

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why isn't the FBI raiding all Silicon Valley companies like Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, WhatsApp, TikTok, Reddit, Google, Yahoo, YouTube, Disqus, Wikipedia for censoring the World through their Ban cartel violating the constitution freespeech laws?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why do older men like to get anal sex?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.